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CompTIA N10-009 Sample Questions
Question # 1
A user connects to a corporate VPN via a web browser and is able to use TLS to access the internalfinancial system to input a time card. Which of the following best describes how the VPN is beingused?
A. Clientless B. Client-to-site C. Full tunnel D. Site-to-site
Answer: A
Explanation: The scenario describes a user connecting to a corporate VPN via a web browser using TLS to access
an internal system. This setup is best described as a "clientless" VPN. Clientless VPNs do not require
a VPN client to be installed on the user's device; instead, they rely on a standard web browser to
establish the connection. This method is particularly useful for providing secure, remote access to
applications through a web interface without the need for additional software installations.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Remote Access Methods section.
Question # 2
Which of the following is the most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within asingle cloud account?
A. Network security group B. laaS C. VPC D. Hybrid cloud
Answer: C
Explanation: A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) is most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within asingle cloud account. A VPC allows you to define a virtual network that closely resembles atraditional network, complete with subnets, route tables, and gateways. This segmentation enablesthe isolation of different parts of a network within a cloud environment, ensuring security andefficient resource management. VPCs are a key component in many cloud infrastructures, providingthe flexibility to manage and control network settings and resources.Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Cloud Models section.
Question # 3
Which of the following steps in the troubleshooting methodology includes checking logs for recent
changes?
A. Identify the problem. B. Document the findings and outcomes. C. Test the theory to determine cause. D. Establish a plan of action.
Answer: A
Explanation:Checking logs for recent changes is part of the "Identify the problem" step in the CompTIAtroubleshooting methodology. This step involves gathering information, including reviewing logs anddocumentation, to understand what might have changed or caused the issue. This preliminaryanalysis is critical for forming an accurate theory about the problem.Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Troubleshooting section.
Question # 4
Which of the following cloud service models most likely requires the greatest up-front expense bythe customer when migrating a data center to the cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a service B. Software as a service C. Platform as a service D. Network as a service
Answer: A
Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) typically requires the greatest up-front expense by the customerwhen migrating a data center to the cloud. IaaS provides virtualized computing resources over theinternet, where customers rent virtual machines, storage, and networks. The customer is responsiblefor managing the operating systems, applications, and data. This model often necessitates significantinitial investment in planning, migration, and configuring the infrastructure. In contrast, Software asa Service (SaaS) and Platform as a Service (PaaS) models usually involve lower up-front costs becausethey offer more managed services.Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Cloud Models section
Question # 5
A network administrator is configuring access points for installation in a dense environment where
coverage is often overlapping. Which of the following channel widths should the administrator
choose to help minimize interference in the 2.4GHz spectrum?
A. 11MHz B. 20MHz C. 40MHz D. 80MHz E. 160MHz
Answer: B
Explanation:In the 2.4GHz spectrum, channels are spaced 5MHz apart but have a bandwidth of 20MHz, resultingin overlapping channels. To minimize interference, especially in a dense environment where accesspoint coverage overlaps, a narrower channel width of 20MHz should be used. Using wider channelwidths like 40MHz, 80MHz, or 160MHz in the 2.4GHz band will increase the overlap andinterference. The 20MHz channel width provides a good balance between performance and minimalinterference.Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Wireless Networks section.
Question # 6
A network engineer wants to implement a new IDS between the switch and a router connected to
the LAN. The engineer does not want to introduce any latency by placing the IDS in line with the
gateway. The engineer does want to ensure that the IDS sees all packets without any loss. Which of
the following is the best way for the engineer to implement the IDS?
A. Use a network tap. B. Use Nmap software. C. Use a protocol analyzer. D. Use a port mirror.
Answer: D Explanation:
To ensure that an IDS sees all packets without any loss and without introducing latency, the best
approach is to use a port mirror, also known as a SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) port. Port mirroring
copies network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to another port where the IDS is
connected. This method allows the IDS to monitor traffic passively without being in the direct path of
network traffic, thus avoiding any additional latency.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Security section
Question # 7
Which of the following panels would be best to facilitate a central termination point for all network
cables on the floor of a company building?
A. Patch B. UPS C. MDF D. Rack
Answer: A
Explanation:
A patch panel is the best choice to facilitate a central termination point for all network cables on the
floor of a company building. Patch panels are used to manage and organize multiple network cables,
providing a central point where all cables converge. This setup allows for easy management,
troubleshooting, and reconfiguration of network connections. The other options, such as UPS
(Uninterruptible Power Supply), MDF (Main Distribution Frame), and rack, serve different purposes
and are not specifically designed for the central termination of network cables.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Installation section.
Question # 8
A customer needs six usable IP addresses. Which of the following best meets this requirement?
A. 255.255.255.128 B. 255.255.255.192 C. 255.255.255.224 D. 255.255.255.240
Answer: D
Explanation:
To meet the requirement of six usable IP addresses, the subnet mask 255.255.255.240 (also
represented as ) is the best fit. A subnet provides 16 total IP addresses, out of which 14 are
usable (the first address is the network address, and the last address is the broadcast address). This
meets and exceeds the requirement for six usable IP addresses, ensuring there are enough addresses
for future expansion if needed. The other options provide either too few or too many addresses for
this specific requirement.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - IP Addressing section.
Question # 9
A network administrator is configuring a new switch and wants to ensure that only assigned devices
can connect to the switch. Which of the following should the administrator do?
A. Configure ACLs. B. Implement a captive portal. C. Enable port security. D. Disable unnecessary services.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To ensure that only assigned devices can connect to a switch, the network administrator should
enable port security. Port security restricts port access based on MAC addresses, allowing only preconfigured
devices to connect to the network. This helps prevent unauthorized devices from gaining
access to the network. Other options like configuring ACLs, implementing a captive portal, or
disabling unnecessary services serve different security purposes and do not directly restrict physical
port access based on device identity.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Security section.
Question # 10
A network administrator needs to set up a multicast network for audio and video broadcasting.
Which of the following networks would be the most appropriate for this application?
A. 172.16.0.0 B. 192.168.0.0 C. 224.0.0.0 D. 240.0.0.0
Answer: C
Explanation:
The address range 224.0.0.0 falls within the Class D IP address range (224.0.0.0 to
239.255.255.255), which is reserved for multicast traffic. Multicast addresses are used for the
delivery of information to multiple destinations simultaneously, making them ideal for applications
like audio and video broadcasting. The other options (172.16.0.0, 192.168.0.0, and
240.0.0.0) are not suitable for multicast as they are within different IP ranges used for other
purposes (private addressing and future use, respectively).
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - IP Addressing section.
Question # 11
A company wants to implement data loss prevention by restricting user access to social media
platforms and personal cloud storage on workstations. Which of the following types of filtering
should the company deploy to achieve these goals?
A. Port B. DNS C. MAC D. Content
Answer: D
Explanation:
To implement data loss prevention (DLP) and restrict user access to social media platforms and
personal cloud storage, the company should deploy content filtering. Content filtering examines the
data being transmitted over the network and can block specific types of content or websites based
on predefined policies. This type of filtering is effective in preventing access to specific web services
and ensuring that sensitive information does not leave the network through unauthorized channels.
Port, DNS, and MAC filtering serve different purposes and are not as effective for DLP in this context.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Security section.
Question # 12
A network administrator's device is experiencing severe Wi-Fi interference within the corporate
headquarters causing the device to constantly drop off the network. Which of the following is most
likely the cause of the issue?
A. Too much wireless reflection B. Too much wireless absorption C. Too many wireless repeaters D. Too many client connections
Answer: A
Explanation:
Severe Wi-Fi interference within a corporate headquarters causing devices to constantly drop off the
network is most likely due to too much wireless reflection. Wireless reflection occurs when Wi-Fi
signals bounce off surfaces like walls, metal, or glass, causing multipath interference. This can lead to
poor signal quality and frequent disconnections. Other causes like wireless absorption, too many
repeaters, or too many client connections can also affect Wi-Fi performance, but excessive reflection
is a common culprit in environments with many reflective surfaces.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Wireless Networks section.
Question # 13
While troubleshooting a VoIP handset connection, a technician's laptop is able to successfully
connect to network resources using the same port. The technician needs to identify the port on the
switch. Which of the following should the technician use to determine the switch and port?
A. LLDP B. IKE C. VLAN D. netstat
Answer: A
Explanation:
Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a network protocol used for discovering devices and their
capabilities on a local area network, primarily at the data link layer (Layer 2). It helps in identifying
the connected switch and the specific port to which a device is connected. When troubleshooting a
VoIP handset connection, the technician can use LLDP to determine the exact switch and port where
the handset is connected. This protocol is widely used in network management to facilitate the
discovery of network topology and simplify troubleshooting.
Other options such as IKE (Internet Key Exchange), VLAN (Virtual LAN), and netstat (network
statistics) are not suitable for identifying the switch and port information. IKE is used in setting up
secure IPsec connections, VLAN is used for segmenting networks, and netstat provides information
about active connections and listening ports on a host but not for discovering switch port details.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Troubleshooting and Tools section.
Question # 14
Which of the following should a network administrator configure when adding OT devices to an
organizations architecture?
A. Honeynet B. Data-at-rest encryption C. Time-based authentication D. Network segmentation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is
particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these
devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices
from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage
traffic and improves overall network performance.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
Question # 15
Which of the following attacks can cause users who are attempting to access a company website to
be directed to an entirely different website?
A. DNS poisoning B. Denial-of-service C. Social engineering D. ARP spoofing
Answer: A
Explanation:
Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is
particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these
devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices
from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage
traffic and improves overall network performance.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
Question # 16
A network administrator wants users to be able to authenticate to the corporate network using a
port-based authentication framework when accessing both wired and wireless devices. Which of the
following is the best security feature to accomplish this task?
A. 802.1X B. Access control list C. Port security D. MAC filtering
Answer: A
Explanation:
802.1X is a port-based network access control (PNAC) protocol that provides an authentication
mechanism to devices wishing to connect to a LAN or WLAN. It is widely used for secure network
access, ensuring that only authenticated devices can access the network, whether they are
connecting via wired or wireless means. 802.1X works in conjunction with an authentication server,
such as RADIUS, to validate the credentials of devices trying to connect.
Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials.
Question # 17
Which of the following disaster recovery concepts is calculated by dividing the total hours of
operation by the total number of units?
A. MTTR B. MTBF C. RPO D. RTO
Answer: B
Explanation: Introduction to Disaster Recovery Concepts:Disaster recovery involves strategies and measures to ensure business continuity and data recoveryin the event of a disaster.Mean Time Between Failures (MTBF):MTBF is a reliability metric used to predict the time between failures of a system during operation. Itis calculated by dividing the total operational time by the number of failures.Formula: MTBF=Total Operational TimeNumber of Failures\text{MTBF} = \frac{\text{TotalOperational Time}}{\text{Number of Failures}}MTBF=Number of FailuresTotal Operational TimeThis metric helps in understanding the reliability and expected lifespan of systems and components.Example Calculation:If a server operates for 1000 hours and experiences 2 failures, the MTBF is:MTBF=1000 hours2=500 hours\text{MTBF} = \frac{1000 \text{ hours}}{2} = 500 \text{hours}MTBF=21000 hours =500 hoursExplanation of the Options:A . MTTR (Mean Time to Repair): The average time required to repair a system after a failure.B . MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures): The correct answer, representing the average time betweenfailures.C . RPO (Recovery Point Objective): The maximum acceptable amount of data loss measured in time D . RTO (Recovery Time Objective): The target time set for the recovery of IT and business activitiesafter a disaster.Conclusion:MTBF is a crucial metric in disaster recovery and system reliability, helping organizations planmaintenance and predict system performance.Reference:CompTIA Network+ guide explaining MTBF, MTTR, RPO, and RTO concepts and their calculations (seepage Ref 10 How to Use Cisco Packet Tracer).
Question # 18
Which of the following connectors provides console access to a switch?
A. ST B. RJ45 C. BNC D. SFP
Answer: B
Explanation:
Console Access:
Purpose: Console access to a switch allows administrators to configure and manage the device
directly. This is typically done using a terminal emulator program on a computer.
RJ45 Connector:
Common Use: The RJ45 connector is widely used for Ethernet cables and also for console
connections to network devices like switches and routers.
Console Cables: Console cables often have an RJ45 connector on one end (for the switch) and a DB9
serial connector on the other end (for the computer).
Comparison with Other Connectors:
ST (Straight Tip): A fiber optic connector used for networking, not for console access.
BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman): A connector used for coaxial cable, typically in older network setups
and not for console access.
SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable): A modular transceiver used for network interfaces, not for
console access.
Practical Application:
Connection Process: Connect the RJ45 end of the console cable to the console port of the switch.
Connect the DB9 end (or USB via adapter) to the computer. Use a terminal emulator (e.g., PuTTY,
Tera Term) to access the switchs command-line interface (CLI).
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on network devices and connectors.
Question # 19
A network administrator wants to implement security zones in the corporate network to control
access to only individuals inside of the corporation. Which of the following security zones is the best
solution?
A. Extranet B. Trusted C. VPN D. Public
Answer: B
Explanation: Introduction to Security Zones:Security zones are logical segments within a network designed to enforce security policies andcontrol access. They help in segregating and securing different parts of the network.Types of Security Zones:Trusted Zone: This is the most secure zone, typically used for internal corporate networks where onlytrusted users have access.Extranet: This zone allows controlled access to external partners, vendors, or customers.VPN (Virtual Private Network): While VPNs are used to create secure connections over the internet,they are not a security zone themselves.Public Zone: This zone is the least secure and is typically used for public-facing services accessible byanyone.Trusted Zone Implementation:The trusted zone is configured to include internal corporate users and resources. Access controls,firewalls, and other security measures ensure that only authorized personnel can access this zone.Internal network segments, such as the finance department, HR, and other critical functions, areusually placed in the trusted zone.Example Configuration:Firewall Rules: Set up rules to allow traffic only from internal IP addresses.Access Control Lists (ACLs): Implement ACLs on routers and switches to restrict access based on IPaddresses and other criteria.Segmentation: Use VLANs and subnetting to segment and isolate the trusted zone from other zones Explanation of the Options:A . Extranet: Suitable for external partners, not for internal-only access.B . Trusted: The correct answer, as it provides controlled access to internal corporate users.C . VPN: A method for secure remote access, not a security zone itself.D . Public: Suitable for public access, not for internal corporate users.Conclusion:Implementing a trusted zone is the best solution for controlling access within a corporate network. Itensures that only trusted internal users can access sensitive resources, enhancing network security.Reference:CompTIA Network+ guide detailing security zones and their implementation in a corporate network(see page Ref 9 Basic Configuration Commands).
Question # 20
Which of the following network devices converts wireless signals to electronic signals?
A. Router B. Firewall C. Access point D. Load balancer
Answer: C
Explanation:
Role of an Access Point (AP):
Wireless to Wired Conversion: An access point (AP) is a device that allows wireless devices to
connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi. It converts wireless signals (radio waves) into electronic
signals that can be understood by wired network devices.
Functionality:
Signal Conversion: The AP receives wireless signals from devices such as laptops, smartphones, and
tablets, converts them into electronic signals, and transmits them over the wired network.
Connectivity: APs provide a bridge between wireless and wired segments of the network, enabling
seamless communication.
Comparison with Other Devices:
Router: Directs traffic between different networks and may include built-in AP functionality but is not
primarily responsible for converting wireless to electronic signals.
Firewall: Protects the network by controlling incoming and outgoing traffic based on security rules,
not involved in signal conversion.
Load Balancer: Distributes network or application traffic across multiple servers to ensure reliability
and performance, not involved in signal conversion.
Deployment:
APs are commonly used in environments where wireless connectivity is needed, such as offices,
homes, and public spaces. They enhance mobility and provide flexible network access.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ study materials on wireless networking and access points.
